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Ask the community...

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Lilah Brooks

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One thing nobody has mentioned yet - if you're setting up a rental business, you might be able to take advantage of Section 195 startup expenses. The first $5,000 can be deducted in your first year of business (subject to limitations), with the remainder amortized over 15 years. The key question is whether your "few nights" rental to a friend constitutes the beginning of your active trade or business. If you can demonstrate that you were genuinely in the startup phase and not actively operating yet, you might be able to classify some of those expenses as startup costs rather than operating expenses. Keep in mind that utilities and insurance during the startup phase could potentially qualify as Section 195 expenses. This might be advantageous compared to having them subject to passive activity loss limitations.

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That's really interesting, I hadn't come across Section 195 in my research. How would I "demonstrate" that I was still in startup phase? Would the fact that I only had one short-term guest who was a friend be evidence of that? And how does this interact with the depreciation requirements that seem to start once I had that first paying guest?

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Lilah Brooks

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To demonstrate you were in startup phase, you would need to show that you were preparing to enter the rental business but not yet actively operating. Documentation is key here - keeping records of renovation work, marketing efforts in progress, business plan development, etc. The fact that you only had one friend stay for a fee that was likely below market rate could potentially support your position that this wasn't the start of regular operations. Regarding depreciation, there's an important distinction here. Section 195 applies to business startup costs (like market research, analysis, business formation costs, etc.), while depreciable assets like furniture and appliances follow different rules. Those depreciable assets would generally start being depreciated when placed in service, which would arguably be when your property was ready and available for rent - potentially when your friend stayed there. It's a complex area with some gray zones. The most conservative approach would be to start depreciation in 2024 for your assets while potentially treating certain qualifying expenses as Section 195 startup costs. This is definitely a situation where professional guidance specific to your circumstances would be valuable.

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Has anyone been audited for rental losses in the first year? I'm in a similar situation where I spent about $22k preparing a property but only earned about $4k in rental income. Claimed all the losses and now I'm worried.

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I went through an audit 3 years ago specifically about first-year rental losses. In my experience, the IRS was mainly looking at whether I had the "intent to profit" from the rental activity. They wanted documentation showing I was genuinely trying to rent it out at market rates and not just using it primarily as a personal residence with occasional rentals. They also scrutinized my depreciation start dates and whether I had properly segregated personal use vs. rental use time. As long as you have good documentation and weren't trying to claim personal expenses as rental expenses, you should be fine even with legitimate losses in the first year. Those startup costs and initial losses are normal in the rental business.

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That's really helpful, thanks. I do have good documentation of all my expenses and definitely was trying to rent it out (have all my marketplace listings saved). I'm just nervous because the loss ratio is so high compared to income in that first year. Sounds like that might be normal and expected though if I can document everything properly.

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Also worth checking what the dividend withholding rate is under your specific tax treaty. Most countries have treaties with the US that reduce withholding on dividends from 30% to 15% or even lower in some cases. Since you didn't have a W8-BEN on file, they probably withheld at the full 30% rate. Depending on your new country of residence, you might be eligible for a refund of the difference when you file your US tax return.

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Demi Lagos

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Do you know if you can claim this refund if you're not required to file a US tax return otherwise? I'm in a similar situation (small dividend after moving) but don't have any other US income to report.

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Yes, you can still claim a refund even if you're not otherwise required to file a US return. You would file Form 1040-NR specifically to claim the refund of overwithholding. For small amounts, you'll need to decide if it's worth the effort. The form isn't particularly complicated, but you'll need to include a copy of your 1042-S showing the withholding and explain that you're eligible for the lower treaty rate. Some people find it's not worth the hassle if the refund amount is very small.

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Mason Lopez

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The automatic reinvestment is actually more problematic than the dividend itself. When you sell that reinvested amount, it creates a new capital gains event that you'll have to report. Make sure to track the cost basis of those reinvested shares!

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Vera Visnjic

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This is a good point. Would the broker still provide an accurate cost basis on the 1099-B for those reinvested shares even if the account holder is now a non-resident alien?

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Check your bank account again! Sometimes they process it as direct deposit even if you selected check. Happened to me last year. Also, make sure you're checking the correct tax year on the Where's My Refund tool. I was looking at 2023 instead of 2024 for like a month wondering where my money was lol

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Nia Harris

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This is actually good advice. I had selected paper check on my return but they sent direct deposit anyway using my bank info from the previous year. Worth checking both!

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Have you tried checking your transcript on the IRS website? Sometimes it shows more detailed info than the Where's My Refund tool. You can access it by creating an account on IRS.gov. The transcript might show if there are any holds or issues with your return that are causing the delay.

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I just tried but couldn't create an account because they want me to verify identity with a credit card or loan number and I don't have either of those right now. Seems like there's no easy way to get info from the IRS unless you're already financially established. So frustrating!

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I worked for the IRS for 11 years. Here's what you need to know: First, verify this is actually from the IRS - the term "Federal Tax Authority" is suspicious. Real IRS notices have specific notice numbers. The IRS CAN seize a primary residence but it's extremely rare and the last resort after many other attempts to collect. If your wife is truly unable to pay due to disability, she likely qualifies for Currently Not Collectible status or possibly an Offer in Compromise (settling for less than owed). Your status as an LPR doesn't affect this situation since the debt and property are in your wife's name. Focus on contacting the IRS Taxpayer Advocate Service (877-777-4778) - they can help navigate hardship situations and often get collection actions paused while you work out a solution.

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Thank you for this detailed response. We've checked the letter more carefully and it does have a CP504 notice number on it, so I think it's legitimate. What's the difference between Currently Not Collectible status and an Offer in Compromise? Would either of these permanently resolve the debt or just delay collection?

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Currently Not Collectible (CNC) status temporarily pauses collection actions when paying the tax debt would create an economic hardship. The debt doesn't go away, but the IRS stops trying to collect while you're in financial hardship. The IRS reviews your status periodically (usually annually) to see if your financial situation has improved. An Offer in Compromise (OIC) is a settlement agreement where the IRS accepts less than the full amount owed to resolve the debt permanently. You have to demonstrate that you cannot pay the full amount due to financial hardship, and they consider your income, expenses, asset equity, and ability to pay. If accepted, you fulfill the terms of the offer (usually a reduced lump sum or payment plan), and the debt is considered paid in full.

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Has anyone looked at whether your wife might qualify for Innocent Spouse Relief? If the tax debt was from a joint return and she was unaware of the issues that caused the underpayment, that could be an option. Just throwing it out there since I went through something similar with my ex's tax problems.

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Innocent Spouse Relief only applies if the debt is from a joint tax return where one spouse didn't know about income that wasn't reported or incorrect deductions. From OP's post, it sounds like this is solely the wife's tax debt, not joint debt, so probably wouldn't apply here.

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Thanks for clarifying! You're right - I missed that detail that it's solely in her name. In that case, exploring the hardship provisions others mentioned is probably the better route.

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Don't forget to also contact your state tax authority! I made the mistake of only dealing with the IRS when my ex committed tax fraud, and then got hit with state tax penalties a few months later. Most states have their own innocent spouse provisions, but you usually need to file separately with them. Also, gather as much evidence as you can that you were kept in the dark about finances. This includes: - Any emails/texts where your ex refused to discuss money - Statements showing you didn't have access to accounts - Testimony from friends/family who witnessed the financial control - Documentation from your therapist about financial abuse (with your permission) The more evidence you have that you couldn't have known about the tax issues, the stronger your case will be.

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Margot Quinn

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That's a really good point about state taxes that I hadn't considered. I'm in Texas which doesn't have state income tax, but we did live in California for two years during our marriage. Should I be concerned about that?

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Yes, absolutely contact California's tax authority (Franchise Tax Board) immediately! California is extremely aggressive about collecting back taxes, and they have a lookback period of up to 20 years for tax fraud. If your ex didn't pay proper taxes while you lived there, California could come after you separately from the IRS. California does have an innocent spouse program, but you need to be proactive about it. Don't wait for them to find you. The good news is that if you get innocent spouse relief from the IRS, California generally follows the federal determination, but you still need to file the proper paperwork with them.

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Noah Lee

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As someone who went through this exact situation, make sure you're documenting EVERYTHING right now. Every letter from the IRS, every conversation (get badge numbers of agents you speak with), every communication with your ex or their attorney. Also, consider filing taxes separately from now on using Married Filing Separately status until the divorce is final. This won't help with past issues but prevents new ones. And when you file your 2024 taxes next year, make sure you work with a tax professional who specializes in innocent spouse situations.

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Adding to this excellent advice - be prepared for a long process. My innocent spouse case took 14 months to resolve completely. The IRS isn't known for speed. Make sure you respond to every letter they send within the timeframe they specify, and always send things certified mail so you have proof of delivery.

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