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Has anyone used TurboTax for calculating how bonuses affect your taxes? I'm trying to figure out if I should upgrade to their premium version this year since I got a significant bonus.
I use TurboTax Premium and it handles bonuses just fine. You just enter the total from your W-2, and it doesn't matter whether the money came from regular salary or bonuses - it's all just income. You don't need to do anything special.
One thing that might help with your planning - if you're concerned about underwithholding on your bonus, you can submit a new W-4 to your employer to increase your withholding for the rest of the year. This way you can avoid owing a large amount at tax time without having to set aside cash separately. You can use the IRS withholding calculator on their website to figure out if you need to adjust. It takes into account your bonus and helps determine if your current withholding will cover your total tax liability. If not, you can increase your withholding on future paychecks to make up the difference. Another option is to make estimated quarterly tax payments if you prefer to handle the extra tax obligation that way rather than adjusting payroll withholding.
This is really helpful advice! I didn't realize you could adjust your W-4 mid-year to account for bonus income. The IRS withholding calculator sounds like exactly what I need to figure out if that 22% withholding on my bonus check will be enough. Quick question - if I do increase my withholding on future paychecks to cover the potential shortfall from my bonus, is there a risk of over-withholding and getting a huge refund next year? I'd rather get my withholding as close to accurate as possible rather than giving the government an interest-free loan.
I've been dealing with a similar situation and wanted to share what I learned from my CPA. The most important thing is to distinguish between a true "worthless security" and a security that was acquired at a minimal value. Based on your description, it sounds like your First Republic shares likely went through the JPMorgan acquisition process rather than becoming truly worthless. Here's what you should do: 1. **Get the facts first**: Call your broker and request the "Corporate Action Notice" for First Republic Bank from May 2023. This will tell you exactly what happened - whether you received cash, JPMorgan shares, or nothing at all. 2. **If you received ANY compensation** (even pennies): This is a regular sale transaction. Use the actual acquisition date, your original cost basis, and whatever you received as proceeds on Schedule D. 3. **For the limit order problem**: Since your shares show $4 value, set your limit price at or below the current bid price (maybe $0.01 per share). This will execute immediately and create the taxable event you need. 4. **Avoid the worthless security claim** unless you truly received zero compensation. The IRS audits these heavily, and if you received even minimal payment, it doesn't qualify. The good news is that either way, you'll be able to claim most of your $5.5k as a capital loss. The documentation from your broker will make everything clear and defensible if questioned.
This is incredibly helpful guidance! I've been putting off dealing with this situation for months because I was so overwhelmed by the complexity, but your step-by-step approach makes it feel much more manageable. The distinction between a worthless security vs. an acquired security is something I completely missed when I was initially researching this. I was getting caught up in all the IRS publications about worthless securities when what I really needed to understand was the corporate action process. Your point about calling the broker for the Corporate Action Notice is spot on - I should have done that from the beginning instead of trying to decipher my regular account statements. And I really appreciate the specific guidance on setting the limit price. I was paralyzed by not knowing what number to enter, but setting it at $0.01 per share makes perfect sense if I just want to execute the sale quickly. One quick question - when you say "current bid price," where would I typically find that information? Is it shown in my brokerage account somewhere, or do I need to look it up elsewhere? I want to make sure I'm setting the limit order correctly so it actually executes. Thanks again for sharing your CPA's advice - this has given me the confidence to finally tackle this properly!
To find the current bid price, log into your brokerage account and look up your First Republic Bank holdings. Most platforms will show you a quote screen with "Bid" and "Ask" prices when you click on the stock symbol. The bid price is what buyers are willing to pay, so setting your limit order at or slightly below that number should execute quickly. If your broker's platform doesn't clearly show bid/ask prices (some simplified interfaces hide this), you can also just set your limit price really low - like $0.001 per share - which will essentially become a market order and execute at whatever the best available price is. Given that your total position is only worth $4, we're talking about fractions of pennies per share anyway. Another option is to call your broker directly and ask them to execute a "market order" to sell all your First Republic shares. They can do this over the phone and it will close out your position immediately at the current market price, whatever that may be. Sometimes the phone approach is simpler than trying to navigate the online limit order system, especially for these odd situations with nearly worthless securities.
I went through this exact same situation with my First Republic shares last year, and after working with my tax preparer, here's what we discovered: The key is determining what actually happened during the JPMorgan acquisition. Most retail shareholders of First Republic did receive some minimal compensation - often around $0.00-$0.50 per share - rather than having truly "worthless" securities. Since your shares still show $4 value in your account, this strongly suggests you received something in the acquisition process. Here's my recommendation: 1. **Contact your broker immediately** and ask for the "Corporate Action Statement" or "Reorganization Details" for First Republic Bank from May 1, 2023. This document will show exactly what you received. 2. **For your limit order issue**: Set your limit price at $0.01 per share (or whatever minimal amount ensures execution). Since your total position is only worth $4, this will execute immediately and give you the realized loss you need. 3. **Report it as a regular sale on Schedule D**: Use May 1, 2023 as the sale date, your original $5.5k as the cost basis, and whatever minimal amount you received as proceeds. 4. **Avoid claiming "worthless securities"** unless you truly received $0. The IRS heavily audits these claims, and if you received any compensation (even pennies), it doesn't qualify. The bottom line: You'll still be able to claim nearly your entire $5.5k loss as a capital loss, but make sure you have proper documentation from your broker first. Don't let the complexity paralyze you - this is actually a fairly straightforward transaction once you get the right paperwork.
This is exactly what I needed to hear! I've been procrastinating on this for way too long because it seemed so complicated, but you've laid out a clear path forward. The fact that you went through the same situation with First Republic makes your advice especially valuable. I'm going to call my broker first thing tomorrow to get that Corporate Action Statement. It sounds like once I have that documentation, everything else should fall into place pretty easily. And I really appreciate the specific guidance on the limit order - setting it at $0.01 per share makes perfect sense given how little my position is worth now. One thing that's been bothering me is whether I missed some deadline for claiming this loss. Since the acquisition happened in May 2023, am I still able to report this on my 2024 taxes if I sell the shares now? Or should this have been reported on my 2023 return? I'm worried I might have messed something up by waiting so long to deal with this. Thanks for sharing your experience - it's given me the confidence to finally get this sorted out properly!
Has anyone considered that maybe there's no tax at all? My understanding is that gifts under the annual exclusion amount don't trigger tax consequences for the recipient. When your grandfather gave it to your dad and when your dad gave it to you, if the value was under the gift tax exclusion limit each time, wouldn't that mean your basis is just the fair market value at the time you received it?
That's not quite right. You're confusing who pays gift tax with how basis works for gifts. It's true the recipient doesn't pay gift tax (the giver would if over the exclusion). But for calculating capital gains when you later sell, your basis is the ORIGINAL purchaser's basis (what grandpa paid), not the value when you received it. This is different from inherited items where you get a "stepped-up" basis to fair market value at death. The only exception is if the fair market value at the time of the gift was LESS than what the original owner paid - then you use the lower market value as your basis. But this is rare with gold jewelry that's appreciated over decades.
This is exactly the kind of situation where getting professional help upfront can save you major headaches later. I dealt with something similar when my aunt gave me her vintage watch collection - no receipts, no appraisals, just family pieces passed down over generations. Here's what I learned: the IRS expects you to make a "good faith effort" to establish basis, but they're reasonable when original documentation doesn't exist. I ended up working with a tax professional who helped me create a defensible basis calculation using historical gold prices, comparable sales data, and a professional appraisal. One key point - make sure you understand the holding period rules. Since these were gifts, your holding period includes the time your grandfather and father owned them, so you'll likely qualify for long-term capital gains treatment. But as others mentioned, gold jewelry is taxed as a collectible at up to 28% for long-term gains, not the lower rates for stocks. Document everything you do to establish the basis - your research, appraisals, conversations with family members, anything that shows you made a reasonable effort. This paper trail will be invaluable if you're ever questioned about your calculations.
This is really helpful advice about the holding period rules! I didn't realize that the time my grandfather and father owned the jewelry would count toward my holding period. That's a relief since it means I should qualify for long-term treatment rather than short-term capital gains rates. The documentation approach you mentioned makes a lot of sense too. I'm starting to see that the key isn't having perfect records, but showing I made a reasonable effort to get the numbers right. I think I'll start by interviewing my grandfather about what he remembers paying and when he bought the pieces, then get a professional appraisal to establish current value. Even rough estimates are better than nothing, right? One question - when you say "comparable sales data," where did you find historical information about jewelry prices from decades ago? That seems like it would be really hard to track down.
Another strategy worth considering is a Charitable Remainder Trust (CRT) if you have any philanthropic interests. This can be particularly effective for highly appreciated farmland since you get an immediate charitable deduction, avoid capital gains tax on the sale, and receive income for life. The CRT sells the property tax-free, then pays you a percentage annually (typically 5-8%) for either a term of years or your lifetime. At the end, the remainder goes to charity. If you don't need the full value immediately and want to support causes you care about, this could provide steady income while significantly reducing your current tax burden. You could also combine this with life insurance to replace the charitable remainder for your heirs if that's a concern. The tax savings from the charitable deduction can help fund the premium payments.
This CRT approach is really intriguing! I hadn't considered the philanthropic angle, but my family has always supported agricultural education programs. A few questions: What happens if the farmland doesn't sell quickly after it goes into the CRT? And can you choose which charities benefit, or does it have to be decided upfront? Also, roughly what kind of immediate tax deduction are we talking about for something like this - is it a percentage of the property value?
Great questions! With a CRT, the property typically needs to be sold within a reasonable timeframe (usually within the first year or two) since the trust needs to generate income to make the required distributions to you. If it doesn't sell quickly, the CRT can borrow against the property or you might need to contribute other assets temporarily. You have complete flexibility in choosing the charitable beneficiaries - you can name specific organizations upfront or retain the right to change them later. Many people start with a donor-advised fund as the remainder beneficiary, which gives them ongoing control over where the money ultimately goes. The immediate tax deduction depends on several factors: your age, the payout rate you choose, current IRS discount rates, and the property value. For farmland worth $1M with a 6% payout rate, someone age 60 might get a deduction around $400K-500K, but you'd need specific calculations based on your situation. The older you are when you create the CRT, the larger the deduction since the remainder value to charity is considered more certain.
Given the complexity of your situation with inherited farmland in a family trust, I'd strongly recommend getting a professional analysis before making any major decisions. Each trust structure is unique, and the tax implications can vary dramatically based on factors like the type of trust, basis step-up rules, and your specific ownership percentage. One consideration that hasn't been fully addressed is the potential impact of the Net Investment Income Tax (NIIT) on your proceeds. If your trust is subject to NIIT, you could face an additional 3.8% tax on investment income, which might influence whether distributing the property before sale or keeping it in trust is more advantageous. Also, since you mentioned all co-owners are relatives, make sure you understand how the sale will be structured. If the trust is selling the entire property as one transaction, you'll need coordination among all beneficiaries for strategies like 1031 exchanges or installment sales. The "patient" approach you mentioned is smart - rushing into a decision could cost you significantly in taxes. Consider consulting with both a trust attorney and a tax professional who specializes in agricultural property transactions to model out different scenarios before proceeding.
Brielle Johnson
I think we're overcomplicating this. The rule is simple - if it's personal, it's not a corporate expense, period. It doesn't matter if you call it non-deductible on M-1, it's still a distribution to the shareholder. The only legitimate non-deductible expenses are things that benefit the corporation but aren't deductible under tax law (life insurance premiums, certain penalties, 50% of meals, political contributions, etc). I tell my clients there are only 3 ways to get money out of a C-corp: 1. Salary for services actually rendered 2. Loans (with proper documentation) 3. Dividends Anything else is just dividends in disguise, and the IRS isn't stupid.
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Honorah King
ā¢Don't forget reasonable shareholder fringe benefits! Health insurance, disability insurance, retirement plans, and other qualified fringe benefits are legitimate corporate expenses that benefit the shareholder without being dividends.
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Connor O'Brien
This is exactly the kind of situation that drives me crazy as a tax professional. You're absolutely right to push back on the previous accountant's approach. The fundamental test isn't whether an expense is deductible - it's whether the expense has ANY legitimate business purpose. Personal expenses like family vacations and tuition have zero business purpose and should never touch the corporate books, even as M-1 adjustments. I've seen too many practitioners use the M-1 approach as a lazy way to avoid difficult conversations with clients. But you're setting up both yourself and the client for problems down the road. The IRS has gotten much more aggressive about constructive dividend audits, especially with closely-held C-corps. My advice: bite the bullet now and clean this up. Reclassify the personal expenses as dividends (or loans if there's proper documentation and repayment ability). Yes, it'll create some additional tax liability, but it's better than dealing with an IRS audit that could go back multiple years with penalties and interest. The client may not like it initially, but they'll thank you when they're not facing a massive IRS bill later.
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Laura Lopez
ā¢I completely agree with this approach. I'm relatively new to handling C-corp clients, but I've been reading up on the constructive dividend rules and it seems like the IRS is really cracking down on this area. What's the best way to handle the conversation with a client when you're essentially telling them their previous accountant was wrong and they now owe additional taxes? I'm worried about losing the client, but I also don't want to perpetuate bad practices. Any specific language or approach that works well for these difficult conversations? Also, when you reclassify these as dividends, do you typically need to file amended returns for prior years, or can you just correct the treatment going forward?
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