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Understanding Tax Consequences When Distribution is Treated as Sale of Shareholder's Stock and Corporation Recognizes Loss in Liquidation

I'm struggling with a corporate tax question about liquidation and would appreciate some help understanding the answer. The scenario involves a corporation (Zenith Inc) that's being liquidated. Brad owns 40% and Rachel owns 60%. They started the company 7 years ago, and Brad's current basis in his shares is $125k. When they liquidate Zenith, Brad receives property (Greenfield) that the corporation bought 4 years ago worth $780k with a basis of $600k. Rachel receives property (Yellowfield) worth $1.2M with a basis of $1.5M. Rachel had contributed this property in a Section 351 exchange 7 years ago. At that time, Rachel's basis in Yellowfield was $1.5M and its FMV was $1.3M. The question asks about tax consequences to Rachel and Zenith, with these options: a. Distribution to Rachel treated as dividend if Zenith has enough E&P b. Distribution to Rachel treated as redemption under Β§ 302(b)(2) c. Distribution treated as sale of Rachel's stock; Zenith won't recognize gain/loss d. Distribution treated as sale of Rachel's stock; Zenith recognizes $300k loss e. Distribution treated as sale of Rachel's stock; Zenith recognizes $100k loss I thought the answer was (c) but apparently it's (d) and I'm not understanding why. Can anyone explain why Zenith would recognize a loss in this situation? I thought distributions in liquidation were generally tax-free to the corporation.

This has been an incredibly educational thread! I'm studying for my tax certification and corporate liquidations have been one of my weakest areas. Reading through everyone's explanations really helped me understand the mechanics. What I found most valuable was learning about the interplay between different code sections. I initially thought Section 311's loss disallowance rule would apply here, but now I understand that Section 336 creates a completely different framework for complete liquidations. The "deemed sale at FMV" concept makes so much sense when you think about it - the corporation is essentially going out of business and disposing of all its assets. The discussion about the 5-year rule under Section 336(d)(2) was also enlightening. It's fascinating how the tax code has these anti-abuse provisions to prevent taxpayers from manufacturing losses through strategic property contributions followed by quick liquidations. For anyone else struggling with these concepts, I'd recommend focusing on identifying the type of transaction first (regular distribution vs. complete liquidation) as that determines which code section applies. Thanks to everyone who shared their knowledge - this community is such a great resource for learning complex tax concepts!

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I completely agree - this thread has been a masterclass in corporate liquidation tax rules! As someone who's also working through these concepts, I really appreciate how everyone broke down the step-by-step analysis. What helped me the most was seeing how the timeline matters so much in tax law. The fact that Rachel contributed the property 7 years ago versus 3 years ago completely changes the tax outcome shows how precise you need to be with these rules. It's not just about knowing Section 336 exists, but understanding all the exceptions and limitations like 336(d)(2). I'm definitely going to bookmark this discussion for future reference. The way everyone explained the "why" behind the rules instead of just memorizing answers is exactly what I needed to really grasp these concepts. Corporate tax can feel overwhelming with all the interconnected sections, but discussions like this make it much more manageable!

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Ben Cooper

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This discussion has been incredibly helpful for understanding corporate liquidation rules! I work in tax compliance and see these issues come up regularly with our corporate clients. One practical tip I'd add: when dealing with liquidation scenarios, always create a timeline of when assets were contributed versus when the liquidation occurs. The 5-year rule under Section 336(d)(2) that was mentioned is crucial for determining loss recognition, and it's easy to miss if you don't map out the dates carefully. Also, for anyone dealing with similar situations in practice, remember that Section 336 applies to ALL property distributed in a complete liquidation - not just the loss property. So in this case, Zenith would also recognize the $180k gain on Greenfield distributed to Brad ($780k FMV - $600k basis). The corporation essentially has a complete "deemed sale" of all assets at fair market value. Thanks to everyone who contributed to this thread - the explanations about why Section 336 overrides Section 311 in complete liquidations really clarified a concept I've struggled with!

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Thanks for that practical tip about creating a timeline! That's such a smart approach - I can see how easy it would be to overlook the 5-year rule if you're not methodical about tracking contribution dates versus liquidation dates. Your point about Section 336 applying to ALL distributed property is also really important. I was so focused on the loss property (Yellowfield) that I didn't fully consider that Brad's situation with Greenfield follows the same "deemed sale" principle. It's a good reminder that in complete liquidations, the corporation recognizes gain OR loss on every asset distributed, not just the problematic ones. This thread has been such a great learning experience - seeing both the theoretical explanations and practical implementation tips really helps solidify these complex concepts. Corporate tax has so many interconnected rules that discussions like this are invaluable for understanding how everything fits together!

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I've been dealing with this exact same issue and wanted to share what I learned after consulting with a tax professional. The key insight is that Schedule AI is designed to prevent overpayment of estimated taxes when your income is uneven throughout the year. When you annualize qualified dividends and capital gains using the same factors (4x for Q1, 2.4x for Q2, 1.5x for Q3, 1x for Q4), you're maintaining the correct proportion between ordinary income and preferentially-taxed income. This is crucial because qualified dividends and long-term capital gains are taxed at lower rates (0%, 15%, or 20% depending on your income level). If you don't annualize these amounts properly, you could end up with the wrong tax calculation. For example, if you received most of your dividends in Q4 but don't annualize them in earlier quarters, your Q1-Q3 calculations would show a higher proportion of ordinary income, leading to higher estimated tax requirements. One practical tip: if you're missing quarterly dividend data, most brokerages have this information in your account history online, even if they only mail annual statements. You can also call them directly - they should be able to provide dividend payment dates for tax purposes.

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This is exactly the guidance I needed! I'm dealing with a complex situation where I had significant capital gains in Q2 and Q3, plus quarterly dividend payments that vary quite a bit in amount. One thing I'm still unclear on - when using the Qualified Dividends and Capital Gain Tax worksheet for each period on Schedule AI, do I need to recalculate the tax bracket thresholds as well? For example, if I'm annualizing my income by 4x for Q1, do the 0%/15%/20% capital gains tax brackets also get adjusted, or do I use the standard annual thresholds? Also, for anyone else struggling with this, I found that keeping a simple spreadsheet tracking dividend payment dates throughout the year makes the Schedule AI calculations much easier. Most dividend-paying stocks have predictable quarterly payment schedules, so you can even plan ahead for next year's estimated payments. The IRS really should provide clearer examples of how to handle this situation in the instructions. It's such a common scenario for anyone with investment income but the guidance is pretty sparse.

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Gemma Andrews

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Great question about the tax bracket thresholds! You use the standard annual thresholds from the tax tables, not adjusted ones. The annualization is only applied to your income amounts, not to the bracket cutoffs themselves. So when you're calculating tax on your annualized amounts using the Qualified Dividends and Capital Gain Tax worksheet, you'd still use the regular 0%/15%/20% brackets based on the annual thresholds ($44,625/$492,300 for single filers in 2023, for example). The worksheet is designed to work with these standard brackets even when you're plugging in annualized income figures. Your spreadsheet idea is spot-on! I wish I'd started tracking dividend dates from the beginning of the year instead of scrambling to reconstruct everything at tax time. For anyone reading this, most major dividend-paying stocks in the S&P 500 pay quarterly, usually in the same months each year (like March/June/September/December), so it becomes pretty predictable once you track it for a year. Completely agree about the IRS guidance being sparse on this. It's such a common scenario but feels like you need to piece together the rules from multiple sources to understand how it all works together.

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This is really helpful information! I'm in a similar situation with uneven dividend income throughout the year. One thing I've been wondering about - if I have REITs that pay monthly dividends rather than quarterly, how should I handle those on Schedule AI? Should I group the monthly payments by quarter, or is there a different approach? Also, does anyone know if there's a safe harbor rule that applies when using Schedule AI? I know there's usually a rule about paying 100% of last year's tax (or 110% if your AGI was over $150K), but I'm not sure how that interacts with the annualized income installment method. The spreadsheet tracking idea is brilliant - I'm definitely going to start doing that going forward. It would save so much time at year-end!

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One more thing on this topic - capital loss carryovers can potentially be used on back-to-back separate and joint returns. Like if you filed as single with carryover losses, then got married, you CAN bring those losses to your joint return. But what's weird is if you file jointly with losses, then get divorced, each spouse gets half the carryover. My ex and I had about $18k in carryovers when we split, and we each took $9k to our separate returns.

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Anna Xian

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Is this officially documented somewhere? Going through a divorce now and we have carryover losses from some terrible investment decisions we made together. Would be nice to know the official position on splitting these up.

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Layla Mendes

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For the divorce question about splitting capital loss carryovers - yes, this is covered in IRS Publication 504 (Divorced or Separated Individuals). When spouses who filed jointly get divorced, any unused capital loss carryovers from the joint returns are generally allocated 50/50 between the former spouses on their subsequent separate returns, unless they agree to a different allocation in their divorce decree. However, if one spouse can demonstrate they were responsible for a larger portion of the losses (like if they managed all the investments that generated the losses), they might be able to claim a larger share. But absent specific documentation or agreement, the IRS default is 50/50 split. The key thing is to make sure this gets addressed in your divorce settlement so there's no confusion later when you're both trying to claim the carryovers on separate returns.

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This is really helpful information! I had no idea that capital loss carryovers could be split in divorce situations. Makes me wonder - what happens if one spouse remarries and files jointly with their new spouse? Can those carried-over losses from the previous marriage be used on the new joint return? Or do they stay tied to the individual who originally incurred them? Also, does anyone know if there are any time limits for making the allocation agreement in the divorce decree, or can former spouses go back and amend how they want to split the losses even after the divorce is final?

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Random question - if I'm buying equipment for a new business but haven't officially formed the LLC yet, can I still take the Section 179 deduction?

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Yes, you can! You don't actually need a formal business entity to claim business deductions. You can operate as a sole proprietor and report everything on Schedule C. The key is that you're genuinely in business with the intent to make profit.

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Great question about multiple businesses and Section 179! You're absolutely on the right track thinking about maximizing your deductions. One important consideration I don't see mentioned yet is the taxable income limitation. Section 179 deductions can't exceed your total taxable income from all active businesses combined. Since you're making $675k from your contracting business, you should have plenty of taxable income to support the deductions for both the truck and startup equipment. However, make sure your new startup is genuinely operational before year-end. The IRS looks for legitimate business activity - not just equipment purchases. Having a business plan, marketing materials, or even preliminary client discussions can help demonstrate business intent. Also, consider the timing strategically. If you're close to the Section 179 phase-out threshold (starts at $4.05M in equipment purchases), you might want to spread purchases across tax years. But with your income level, this probably isn't a concern. The key is proper documentation for both businesses and ensuring the equipment is actually placed in service before December 31st.

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Omar Zaki

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This is really helpful, especially the point about demonstrating genuine business activity! I'm curious about the "placed in service" requirement - if I buy equipment in December but it takes a few weeks to get delivered and set up, does that affect my ability to claim the deduction for this tax year? Should I be planning my purchases earlier to ensure everything is operational before December 31st?

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Has anyone here actually gone through with an S Corp to partnership conversion who can speak to the actual filing process? Our accountant seems unsure about the exact sequence of forms.

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Kelsey Chin

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Our firm did this last year. The correct sequence was: 1) File Form 8832 electing to be treated as a partnership with a prospective effective date, 2) File a short-period final S Corp return (Form 1120-S) up to the day before the effective date, 3) Start filing Form 1065 partnership returns from the effective date forward. Make sure you check the "final return" box on the 1120-S. The IRS will send a confirmation letter of the entity change, which took about 6 weeks in our case.

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That's super helpful, thanks! Did you have any issues with payroll continuity during the transition? I'm wondering if we need new EIN or can keep the same one.

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NebulaNomad

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Great question about the EIN! You can actually keep the same EIN when converting from S Corp to partnership status - the IRS doesn't require a new one for entity classification changes. The EIN stays with the legal entity (your LLC), not the tax election. For payroll continuity, you'll need to update your payroll processor and notify them of the entity classification change. Any owner-employees who were receiving W-2s as S Corp shareholders will need to transition to receiving partnership distributions and guaranteed payments instead. This means you'll stop withholding payroll taxes for owners and they'll need to start making quarterly estimated tax payments. One thing to watch out for - if you have employees who aren't owners, their payroll treatment stays exactly the same. It's only the owner compensation that changes from wages to partnership income.

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Omar Hassan

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This is really helpful info about keeping the EIN! I'm new to this whole entity classification thing, so forgive me if this is a basic question - when you say owner-employees will transition from W-2s to partnership distributions, does that mean they'll end up paying more in taxes? I'm trying to understand if there are any downsides to making this switch from the owners' perspective. Also, do the quarterly estimated payments need to cover both income tax and self-employment tax for the partnership income?

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