Don't forget about the "recapture" when you eventually sell! I learned this lesson the hard way. When you sell a rental property, you'll have to "recapture" all that depreciation you've been taking over the years and pay taxes on it (at a rate up to 25%). Even if you don't actually claim the depreciation on your tax returns, the IRS will treat it as if you did when you sell, so you might as well take the deduction. Just be prepared for that tax bill down the road when you sell. Something to consider in your long-term planning.

Great discussion here! As someone who went through this conversion process a few years ago, I can confirm what others have said about using the lower of adjusted basis or FMV at conversion time. One thing I'd add that hasn't been mentioned yet - make sure you're tracking your depreciation carefully each year, even if you can't currently deduct the losses due to passive activity limitations. The IRS requires you to reduce your basis by the depreciation you're "allowed or allowable," so even if the losses are suspended, you still need to calculate and track the annual depreciation. I use a simple spreadsheet to track my original basis, improvements, annual depreciation, and accumulated depreciation. This becomes crucial when you eventually sell the property for calculating gain/loss and depreciation recapture. It's much easier to maintain good records from the start than trying to reconstruct everything years later! Also, don't forget about the possibility of qualifying for the $25,000 rental loss allowance if your income drops below the phase-out thresholds in future years due to job changes, retirement, etc.

Has anyone used Drake Tax software to report this kind of situation? I'm trying to figure out the best way to enter the grant as non-taxable and handle the M-1 adjustments in Drake, but the software seems to get confused when I try to create the deferred revenue portion.

For S-Corp grant reporting, the key is understanding whether you have a performance obligation. If the grant requires specific activities or expenditures, only recognize income as you fulfill those obligations - this keeps the unused portion as deferred revenue on your balance sheet. Here's what I'd recommend for your 1120-S: 1. If the entire grant is truly non-taxable and has no performance requirements, include it in book income and back it out on M-1 Line 5 as "Income recorded on books this year not included on return." 2. If there are performance obligations for the unused portion, treat only the "earned" portion as current income, with the remainder as deferred revenue. This approach is cleaner for multi-year situations. 3. Make sure your grant agreement clearly states the tax treatment - some grants are explicitly non-taxable while others might create taxable income depending on how funds are used. The documentation is crucial here. Keep detailed records of how you determined the taxable vs non-taxable portions, especially if the grant has specific use restrictions. This will be important if you face any questions later from the IRS or state tax authorities. What type of grant did you receive? The specific nature (research, PPP forgiveness, state economic development, etc.) can impact the exact treatment required.

I would probably contact Dave again, but specifically ask to speak with their ACH department or a supervisor. Sometimes the frontline customer service representatives don't have visibility into pending transactions that haven't fully posted yet. In my experience, using the phrase "I need to speak with someone who can verify pending ACH transfers that might not be visible in the system yet" can get you to someone more helpful. If that doesn't work within 24 hours, you might need to consider filing a CFPB complaint, which often prompts faster action from financial institutions.

I've been through this exact situation with Dave last year! Here's what actually helped me get results: when you call Dave, specifically ask to be transferred to their "Payment Operations" or "ACH Processing" department - don't just talk to regular customer service. The front-line reps literally cannot see pending ACH transfers that are in their processing queue. Also, get a reference number from Cross River for the transaction they sent - this gives you something concrete to reference when Dave claims they haven't received anything. In my case, Dave had received the deposit 2 days earlier but it was sitting in their internal review system. Once I had the Cross River reference number and spoke to the right department, they located it immediately and released it the same day.

If you're going to file separately to try to save on the PTC repayment, be aware of these downsides: - No student loan interest deduction - No Lifetime Learning Credit - No Earned Income Credit - Reduced IRA contribution limits - Lower capital loss deduction limit - Lower standard deduction than joint filing - Higher tax rates kick in at lower income levels - Child and dependent care credit limitations I'm a tax preparer and often see couples who think filing separately will save them money, but end up paying MORE overall because they lose so many benefits. Run the full calculation both ways before deciding!

As someone who went through this exact situation last year, I'd strongly recommend running the numbers both ways before deciding on your filing status. The alternative calculation on Form 8962 is definitely your friend here - it allows you to split the year based on your marriage date. For the 8 months before marriage (January-August), your husband can use his individual income of $25,000 for PTC calculations. For September-December, you'll need to use the combined $120,000 income, which will likely trigger repayment for those months since you're well over the 400% FPL threshold. One thing to consider that others haven't mentioned - if your husband had qualifying life events during the year (like the marriage), he should have reported this to the marketplace to adjust the APTC going forward. Since that didn't happen, you're dealing with the reconciliation now. Also worth noting: the repayment cap might apply to your situation if your income is between 200-400% of FPL for any portion of the year. For 2023, this cap could limit your repayment to around $1,550-$2,800 depending on your exact circumstances. Don't let TurboTax be your only calculation - consider getting the forms and doing the math manually or with a tax professional who specializes in ACA issues. The software sometimes misses nuances in these complex situations.

Your understanding is spot on! Options with different strike prices OR different expiration dates are generally not considered "substantially identical securities" for wash sale purposes. So in your AMZN example, buying calls with either a different strike or expiration after selling at a loss should typically not trigger a wash sale. I've been trading options for about 8 months and initially had the same concerns. What really helped was realizing that the "substantially identical" test is quite strict - ALL contract specifications (underlying, strike, expiration, call/put type) need to match for it to apply. A few practical tips from my experience: - Keep detailed records in a spreadsheet (underlying, strike, expiration, dates, P&L) because Robinhood's wash sale reporting can be inaccurate - If you want to maintain similar exposure after a loss, try buying options with strikes $5-10 away from your original position - makes it crystal clear they're different securities - Remember that even one day difference in expiration typically breaks the wash sale rule The key is documentation and understanding the actual rules rather than being overly conservative. Most active options traders naturally avoid wash sales just by how we trade - constantly adjusting strikes based on market moves and using different expirations for various strategies. Don't let wash sale fears prevent you from making good trading decisions - just keep good records and you'll be fine!

Your understanding is absolutely correct! Options with different strike prices OR different expiration dates are generally not considered "substantially identical securities" for wash sale purposes. In your AMZN example, buying calls with a different strike or expiration after selling at a loss should typically not trigger a wash sale. I've been trading options for about a year and had the exact same confusion when I started. The key insight is that the "substantially identical" test requires ALL aspects to match - underlying stock, strike price, expiration date, and option type (call/put). If any one of these differs, you're generally in the clear. A practical approach I use: if I take a loss on options and want to maintain similar exposure, I'll deliberately choose strikes that are $5-10 different from my original position. For example, if I sold AMZN $2000 calls at a loss, I might buy $2010 or $1990 calls. This gives me nearly identical market exposure while making it crystal clear they're different securities. Also want to echo what others have mentioned about record keeping - start tracking your trades in a simple spreadsheet now. Include underlying, strike, expiration, trade dates, and P&L. Robinhood's wash sale reporting has been inconsistent in my experience, flagging some trades incorrectly while missing others. The 31-day rule is always the safest if you're uncertain, but understanding these nuances gives you much more flexibility in your trading strategy without unnecessary tax complications!