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Just wanted to add for the original poster - don't forget that foreign interest may also be subject to the Foreign Tax Credit if your brother paid Australian tax on that interest income. Form 1116 would be used for that, which is another form entirely. It gets complicated fast with foreign income!
Thanks for mentioning this! Do you know if the Foreign Tax Credit is worth claiming for such a small amount ($65)? Is there a minimum threshold where it makes sense to bother with Form 1116?
For just $65 of interest income, the Foreign Tax Credit might not be worth the additional paperwork. Form 1116 is pretty complex and time-consuming to complete correctly. As a general rule, I usually don't bother with Form 1116 unless the foreign tax paid is at least $300-400, given the time and complexity involved. However, there's no minimum threshold requirement - you can claim it for any amount. If your brother plans to have more significant foreign income in the future, it might be worth establishing the pattern now. It's really a judgment call based on how much Australian tax was actually paid on that interest and how much you value your time versus the small credit amount.
Something nobody has mentioned yet - if your brother's foreign financial accounts exceeded $10,000 at any point during the year, he'll need to file FinCEN Form 114 (FBAR) separately from his tax return. The penalties for not filing this are insanely high, like $10,000+ for non-willful violations.
One thing to consider is whether the standard mileage rate or actual expenses method is better for you. I've been self-employed for 5 years and I've tried both. If you have an older, fuel-efficient car with minimal repairs, the standard mileage rate (58.5 cents/mile) usually gives you a bigger deduction. If you have a newer, expensive vehicle with high costs (lease payments, interest, expensive repairs), the actual expenses method might be better. Just remember, if you use actual expenses, you can only deduct the business percentage of your total vehicle expenses. So if you use your car 60% for business and 40% for personal, you can only deduct 60% of your actual costs.
If I choose actual expenses the first year, can I switch to standard mileage the next year if that works out better? Or am I locked into one method?
If you use the standard mileage rate the first year you use the car for business, you can switch between methods in subsequent years. However, if you use actual expenses the first year, you're locked into that method for the life of that vehicle for business purposes. That's why many tax professionals recommend using standard mileage the first year even if actual expenses might be slightly better - it preserves your flexibility to switch methods later if your situation changes. Once you choose actual expenses initially, you can't go back to standard mileage for that same vehicle.
Heads up - don't forget the mileage you drive for medical purposes (21 cents per mile) and charitable purposes (14 cents per mile) have separate rates from business mileage! I messed this up on my taxes last year and had to file an amendment.
Have you considered filing quarterly estimated tax payments to cover the difference? That's what I did when I had a similar situation. It's not ideal since you're basically doing extra work to cover your employer's mistake, but it does prevent you from owing penalties. You just calculate approximately how much extra you need to pay each quarter and submit it using Form 1040-ES. The IRS doesn't care where the money comes from as long as they get it in time (either through withholding or estimated payments).
I hadn't thought about estimated payments! That might be a good backup plan if I can't get my employer to fix the withholding. Do you know if there's a minimum amount required for estimated payments? And what are the deadlines for those?
There's no minimum amount for estimated tax payments - you can pay whatever you need to make up the difference. The quarterly due dates are usually April 15, June 15, September 15, and January 15 of the following year (though they can shift slightly if those dates fall on weekends or holidays). Just be sure you're paying enough to meet one of the "safe harbor" provisions to avoid penalties: either 90% of this year's tax or 100% of last year's tax (110% if your AGI was over $150,000). I used the IRS Direct Pay system online which makes it pretty easy to submit payments, and you get immediate confirmation.
Can't you just submit a new W-4 with an extra withholding amount? That's what my aunt did when this happened to her. She just calculated how much she was short by the previous year, divided by her pay periods, and put that on line 4(c).
Has anyone tried using tax-loss harvesting in their investment accounts to offset some of the HYSA interest? I did this last year and was able to claim about $3k in losses against interest income.
That only works if you actually have investment losses to harvest though. In a year where the market is up, you might not have many losses to claim. Plus you need a taxable brokerage account, not just retirement accounts.
Something super simple that people overlook - you can just increase your W4 withholding by a specific dollar amount per paycheck to account for the HYSA interest. If you're earning $8k in interest that would be about $1760 in federal taxes at 22% bracket. Divide by your number of paychecks and have that extra amount withheld each time. Much simpler than moving money around!
Lilly Curtis
Something nobody's mentioned yet - you should check if Spain has an exit tax that applies when you move your investments out of the country. Some European countries impose taxes when residents leave with their investments. I got hit with this when leaving Portugal and wasn't prepared for it. Also, if your Spanish funds are similar to US ETFs, you might want to look into whether your new US broker can accept a transfer-in-kind rather than selling and rebuying. Some global brokers like Interactive Brokers can sometimes handle this for certain securities.
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Kevin Bell
ā¢Thanks for bringing this up! Do you know if there's any way to find out about Spain's exit tax policies? My broker hasn't mentioned anything about this, but they've been pretty unhelpful overall. Also, with the transfer-in-kind option, would that avoid triggering US taxes, or would the IRS still consider that a taxable event even though I'm not technically selling?
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Lilly Curtis
ā¢Your best source would be the Spanish tax authority website or calling them directly. Sometimes these exit taxes only apply if you've been in the country for a certain number of years or have investments over a specific threshold. In Portugal, it only applied to investments I'd held for more than 5 years and only on the appreciation portion. For the transfer-in-kind, if the securities are identical before and after the transfer (same ISIN number), the US generally doesn't consider it a taxable event. You're simply moving the same investment from one broker to another. However, this only works if the exact same fund is available on both platforms. Most European funds don't have US equivalents with identical ISINs, which is where the problem lies.
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Leo Simmons
Just a warning from my experience - if your Spanish investments are mutual funds or ETFs (sounds like they are), they'll almost certainly be classified as PFICs, which the IRS treats very harshly. When I moved from France with my investments, I didn't know about PFIC rules and kept my foreign funds for 2 years. The tax calculation was a nightmare and I ended up paying much higher rates than if I'd invested in equivalent US funds. I would strongly consider selling everything and rebuying similar US-based funds, despite the one-time tax hit.
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Lindsey Fry
ā¢Is there any way around the PFIC classification? I have some Swiss funds I really don't want to sell but don't want the tax headache either.
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