
IRS
CommunityGovernment Services


Ask the community...
I'm stuck trying to figure out my taxes this year and hoping someone can give me some guidance! My husband received Social Security Disability Insurance approval this past year after being on private long-term disability for almost 4 years. When the approval came through, we received a massive lump sum payment of about $105k for back benefits. However, due to our contract with the private disability insurer, we had to turn around and send them $102k of that money to reimburse them for what they had paid during the disability application process. Now I'm looking at our SSA-1099 form, and it shows approximately $121k in total benefits paid. But we only actually kept around $19k of that (the monthly payments that started coming after the back payment was sorted out). I'm worried that if I just report the $19k we actually got to keep as income, we'll immediately get flagged for audit since the SSA is telling the IRS we received $121k. But it feels wrong to pay taxes on money that basically just passed through our account. Has anyone dealt with this situation before? What's the right way to handle this on our tax return?
So I made the unfortunate decision to buy and sell a publicly traded partnership (Magellan Midstream Partners - MMP) last year, and now I'm dealing with the tax headache. Just got my K-1 form and on the Transaction schedule attached to it, there's something about an IRC Section 751 statement that I apparently need to file. The problem is I already e-filed my return weeks ago! I had no idea about all these special PTP tax rules when I made the trade. The K-1 just arrived yesterday, and it's showing some kind of "hot asset" calculations related to Section 751. Do I need to amend my entire return now? Or is there a way to just submit this 751 statement separately? I'm completely lost on what to do next and really worried about getting hit with penalties for not reporting this correctly. Anyone dealt with this PTP nightmare before who can offer some guidance? I only held the investment for about 3 months and the profit wasn't huge, but I don't want to mess up my taxes over this.
Has anyone successfully e-filed an amended return with Section 751 statements? Or do you have to mail in a paper 1040-X? I'm in the same boat with a PTP K-1 that arrived late, and dreading having to print and mail everything.
For 2022 returns, you should be able to e-file a 1040-X through most major tax software, BUT the Section 751 statement itself might cause issues. When I tried last year, the software wouldn't let me attach the statement electronically, so I had to mail it in. Maybe check if your software specifically supports attachments with e-filed amendments.
I've been through this exact scenario with multiple PTP investments over the years, and you're definitely not alone in this frustration! The good news is that receiving K-1s after filing is extremely common with PTPs, and the IRS is generally understanding about this timing issue. For your Section 751 statement, you'll need to file Form 1040-X to amend your return. The key information should be on the transaction schedule that came with your K-1 - look for any amounts labeled as "Section 751(a) ordinary income" or similar language about "hot assets." A few practical tips from my experience: - Don't stress about penalties - if you file the amendment within a reasonable time after receiving the K-1, you're usually fine - The Section 751 statement itself is just a simple document showing the breakdown between ordinary income and capital gain portions of your sale - Keep copies of everything, including the date you received the K-1, in case you need to explain the timing later Since you mentioned the profit wasn't huge, the actual tax impact might be smaller than you're worried about. The main thing is getting it reported correctly. Consider this a learning experience for future PTP investments - now you know to expect these complications!
So I recently got hired at this company as a W2 employee, but I've been thinking about asking my boss if they'd be willing to switch me over to 1099 status instead. The thing is, I already have my own side business that I've been running for about 2 years now, and I feel like being classified as an independent contractor for my day job would make more sense tax-wise. Has anyone done this before? Is this even possible or are there rules against switching from W2 to 1099 at the same company? I know there are different tax implications, but I think it would be beneficial for me to have everything under my business. Just wondering if anyone has experience with this kind of situation...
I think this question comes up a lot because the potential tax deductions for 1099 work seem attractive, but most people don't realize how strict the classification rules are. My accountant explained that the IRS has a 20-factor test they use to determine proper worker classification!
Before making this switch, you should also consider using Form SS-8 to get an official determination from the IRS about your worker classification. This form allows you to request a formal ruling on whether you should be classified as an employee or independent contractor based on your specific work arrangement. The benefit of filing SS-8 is that it gives you and your employer legal protection - if the IRS determines you qualify as a 1099 contractor through this process, you're much less likely to face penalties later. It takes a few months to get a response, but it's the most definitive way to know if your situation would actually qualify for the switch. Just keep in mind that even if you want to be a contractor, the IRS might still determine you're an employee based on the actual working relationship. The classification is about the reality of how the work is performed, not just what you and your employer prefer.
I'm helping my mom with my dad's taxes this year and we're stuck on this AT&T stock issue. Dad bought some AT&T shares back in December 1999 (according to his 1099), but there's no cost basis listed anywhere. He's got some cognitive decline now so he can't really help us figure this out. The complication is that these were originally paper certificates that he eventually deposited with a brokerage firm. Now there's this whole AT&T (T) to Warner Discovery (WBD) transition that we need to account for as well. Can anyone explain how to determine the original cost basis for these shares from 1999 and then properly handle the transition from AT&T to Warner Discovery for tax purposes? I've looked through old files but can't find the original purchase records. Is there a way to look up historical prices or do I need to contact AT&T investor relations? Feeling pretty lost with this situation.
Has anyone used historical newspaper archives to find stock prices? My local library provides free access to newspaper archive databases, and I was able to find the stock section from December 2, 1999 (day after the purchase date mentioned) which showed AT&T's closing price. Just another option if the online financial sites don't go back that far.
I'm dealing with a similar situation with my father-in-law's old stock certificates. One thing that helped us was checking if your dad kept any old tax returns from around 1999-2001. Sometimes people recorded the stock purchases on Schedule D even if they didn't sell that year, or there might be dividend income reported that could help verify he actually owned the shares. Also, AT&T's investor relations department has been pretty helpful when I called them directly. They can't give you the exact cost basis, but they can confirm the stock splits and corporate actions that affected shares purchased on specific dates. They told me that AT&T stock split 2-for-1 in May 2000, so if your dad bought in December 1999, that would double his share count before any of the later corporate actions. The Warner Discovery spinoff in April 2022 is definitely the trickiest part - I ended up having to allocate about 71% of the adjusted basis to the remaining AT&T shares and 29% to the new WBD shares based on the relative trading values at the time of the spinoff.
I've been reviewing info on the underpayment of taxes penalty and safe harbor, and I'm getting mixed messages. Most sources say you avoid penalties if your tax payments equal 90% of taxes owed. But there seems to be confusion about how estimated tax payments factor into this. From what I understand reading the IRS instructions, estimated tax payments don't count toward meeting safe harbor, but many people claim they do if spread equally throughout the year. I've had both W-2 income and self-employment earnings for about 10 years now. For 2024, I made 4 equal estimated tax payments with my income distributed pretty evenly across the year. However, my withheld tax payments don't reach the 90% threshold for safe harbor. My total taxes paid (withholding plus estimated) are SIGNIFICANTLY MORE than my taxes owed. I never even knew about this penalty until I tried a third tax program which triggered a Form 2210 (I always check my return in multiple programs). Too late for 2024 now, but I plan to increase my withholding and reduce estimated payments for 2025. So I'm wondering: 1. Am I reading the 2210 instructions correctly that estimated taxes aren't considered when determining this penalty? 2. If that's right, what's the logic behind excluding estimated taxes from the penalty calculation?
A little-known trick: if you make a large estimated payment in January of the following year (before filing), you might be able to apply it to the previous year's Q4 estimated payment. I've done this before when I realized I might face an underpayment penalty. The key is to specify on the payment voucher that you want it applied to the previous tax year's Q4 payment. This won't help with penalties from Q1-Q3 underpayments, but it can reduce the Q4 portion of any penalty.
Does this really work? I thought Q4 estimated payments had to be made by January 15th to count for the previous year. Are you saying you can make them even later?
You're right to question this - Q4 estimated payments for the previous tax year must be made by January 15th, not later. I think Hunter might be confusing this with making an estimated payment for the current year in January, which wouldn't help with the previous year's underpayment penalty. Once the January 15th deadline passes, your only options are to pay the penalty or request a waiver/abatement. You can't retroactively fix underpayments after that date.
This is such a common area of confusion! I went through the same thing last year with my mixed W-2 and consulting income. One thing that really helped me understand the penalty calculation was realizing that the IRS essentially wants you to "pay as you go" rather than catch up at year-end. So even if your total payments exceed your tax liability, you can still owe a penalty if those payments weren't distributed properly throughout the year. For your 2025 planning, increasing withholding is definitely the right move since it's treated as paid evenly throughout the year. But don't completely eliminate estimated payments if your self-employment income is substantial - you might just need to adjust the timing and amounts. Also worth noting: if your prior year tax liability was under $1,000, or if this is your first time owing an underpayment penalty, you might qualify for first-time penalty abatement even after filing. The IRS is surprisingly reasonable about waiving penalties for taxpayers with good compliance history.
For first-time penalty abatement, you can either call the IRS directly or submit Form 843 (Claim for Refund and Request for Abatement). Calling is usually faster if you can get through - you just need to explain that this is your first underpayment penalty and you've had clean compliance for the past 3 years. They'll often approve it on the spot. For withholding adjustments, I spread the increase evenly throughout the year rather than front-loading it. The key advantage of withholding is that it's automatically treated as paid evenly regardless of when it actually comes out of your paychecks. So whether you increase it in January or spread it out, the IRS treats it the same for penalty calculation purposes. I kept some estimated payments since my consulting income varies, but I made sure each quarter's estimated payment plus allocated withholding met the safe harbor threshold. This gave me more flexibility while avoiding penalties.
For first-time penalty abatement, you can request it by calling the IRS directly - there's no specific form required. Just explain that this is your first underpayment penalty and you have a clean compliance history. They can often process the abatement right over the phone if you qualify. The criteria is generally: no penalties for the past 3 years, filed all required returns, and paid or arranged to pay any outstanding taxes. The $1,000 threshold you mentioned applies to a different safe harbor rule - first-time abatement is separate from that. For withholding adjustments, I spread the increase evenly throughout the year rather than front-loading it. The IRS treats withholding as paid uniformly regardless of when it's actually taken from your paycheck, so there's no advantage to bunching it early. The key is just making sure your total withholding meets the safe harbor threshold (90% of current year or 100%/110% of prior year). If you do call about penalty abatement, consider using a service like Claimyr that others mentioned - the IRS hold times are brutal right now.
James Johnson
Whatever approach you take, make sure you keep ALL documentation! Keep copies of: 1) Your original SSA-1099 2) Bank statements showing the lump sum coming in 3) The payment to the disability insurance company 4) The contract with the disability company requiring repayment 5) Any correspondence with SSA or the insurance company I learned this the hard way when I had a similar situation in 2021 and got a letter from the IRS. Having all my documentation ready made resolving the issue much easier.
0 coins
Sophia Rodriguez
Would regular bank statements be sufficient or would they need more specific proof of the repayment to the insurance company? I'm wondering if a letter from the insurance company acknowledging receipt would also be helpful.
0 coins
Javier Cruz
I'm dealing with almost the exact same situation right now! My husband just got approved for SSDI after 3 years on private LTD, and we're facing that massive lump sum with most of it going back to the insurance company. One thing I wanted to add that hasn't been mentioned yet - make sure you understand the timing of when you need to report this. Since SSDI backpay can cover multiple tax years, you might be able to use the "lump sum election" under Section 86(e) to calculate the tax as if you had received the payments in the years they were actually for, rather than all in the year you received them. This could potentially lower your overall tax burden, especially if it pushes you into higher tax brackets. You'd use Form SSA-1099 along with Form 1040 and possibly need to file amended returns for prior years. It's complex, but could save you significant money if the backpay covers multiple years and would have been taxed at lower rates if received when originally due. Definitely recommend getting professional help for this - the interaction between SSDI taxation, subrogation payments, and lump sum elections is not something most general tax preparers are familiar with.
0 coins