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One thing nobody mentioned yet - make sure you have a solid Operating Agreement that specifies how profits and losses are allocated. Without this, the IRS assumes equal distribution regardless of who contributed what. Also, consider if you want to make a special allocation for tax purposes. For example, if one partner contributed more startup capital, you might want to allocate more of the initial losses to them (if applicable). But be aware that special allocations need to have "substantial economic effect" to be respected by the IRS. This gets complicated fast, so you might want professional help with this part.
We do have an operating agreement, but it's pretty basic and just says we split everything equally. Is that sufficient? Also, what exactly is "substantial economic effect" and how do we know if our allocations meet that requirement?
Your basic agreement splitting everything equally is actually the simplest approach for IRS purposes, so that's fine. "Substantial economic effect" is the IRS's way of ensuring that tax allocations reflect economic reality. Basically, tax benefits should go to the partner who actually bears the economic burden or receives the economic benefit. For example, if your agreement said Partner A gets 90% of the tax losses but only 10% of the actual profits when you sell or liquidate the business, the IRS would likely reject that as lacking substantial economic effect. The partner getting the tax benefits must also bear the economic consequences. When you allocate everything equally, this usually isn't an issue unless you have complex arrangements like guaranteed payments or preferred returns.
Has anyone handled QBI (Qualified Business Income) deduction with partnerships? My accountant says partnership income qualifies but I'm confused about how it passes through to personal returns.
Yes, partnership income can qualify for the QBI deduction (Section 199A). The partnership doesn't take the deduction itself - it's calculated and claimed on each partner's individual return based on their share of qualified business income. The partnership will provide information on each partner's K-1 about qualified business income, W-2 wages paid by the business, and qualified property. Partners then use this information on Form 8995 or 8995-A on their personal returns to calculate their deduction. The deduction can be up to 20% of QBI, subject to limitations based on taxable income, business type, and W-2 wages/qualified property.
The 401k overcontribution issue happened to me too! The way I handled it in TurboTax was: 1. Enter the 1099-R you received for the returned excess 2. Make sure you check that it was a "return of excess contributions" 3. The earnings portion (if any) is taxable in the year you receive it TurboTax has a specific workflow for this but their "experts" apparently don't know about it. Try searching "excess contribution" in the TurboTax help section instead of asking their live people.
Thanks for this! Where exactly is that option? I searched around but couldn't find the specific "return of excess contributions" checkbox.
When you enter the 1099-R information, there should be a question about the type of distribution. One of the options is "return of excess contributions." It's in the section where you're entering the distribution code from Box 7. If you've already entered it differently, you can go back and edit the 1099-R entry. Look for "Your Income" in the left sidebar, then find the 1099-R entry and click on it to edit. The option should appear during the workflow.
Pro tip: Skip TurboTax's live help and just call the IRS directly with questions like these. Despite what people think, the IRS phone representatives are actually pretty helpful and give correct information (when you can actually get through). For the 1099-R rollover question, that's literally their job to answer correctly, unlike some random TurboTax contractor who might be in their first tax season.
Call the IRS directly? Lol good luck with that. I tried calling 8 times this season and either got disconnected or told the wait time was 2+ hours. Never actually spoke to anyone.
Just to clarify something that hasn't been mentioned yet - the capital gains tax rate depends on how long you held the investments before selling. Since you mentioned "long term gains," that means you held the investments for more than a year, so you'll pay the lower long-term capital gains rate (0%, 15%, or 20% depending on your income) rather than your regular income tax rate. Also, when you meet with your tax preparer, bring any records you have of the original purchase price/date of your investments. This "cost basis" information is crucial for calculating the exact gain.
Thank you all so much for the helpful responses! This definitely helps calm my nerves. Just to double check - even though I sold in December, I'm still okay waiting until I file my taxes to pay? My gains were about $28,000 and I'm worried that's a large enough amount to trigger some special requirement.
Yes, you're still fine waiting until you file your taxes to pay, even with $28,000 in gains. Since these sales happened in December 2023, they're part of your 2023 tax return due April 15, 2024. The $28,000 amount doesn't trigger any special immediate payment requirement. If you continue to have large capital gains in 2024, you might want to consider making estimated quarterly payments this year to avoid potential underpayment penalties next tax season. But for your 2023 gains, just handle it with your regular tax filing.
Does anyone know if there's a way to see what your tax bill might be before getting all the official forms? I've got a similar situation but want to start budgeting for what I'll owe.
You can make a rough estimate. For long-term capital gains (held over 1 year), the tax rates are: 0% if your income is under $44,625 (single) or $89,250 (married) 15% if your income is under $492,300 (single) or $553,850 (married) 20% for incomes above that Just take your approximate gain amount and multiply by the appropriate percentage based on your income. It won't be exact but gives you a ballpark.
Former payroll specialist here. This is actually pretty common - many companies use what's called "composite rate" accounting for their healthcare reporting. Basically, they take the total cost of offering the health plan and divide it among all employees for W2 reporting purposes, even though not everyone is enrolled. The amount in Code DD has zero effect on your taxes. It's not income to you, not a deduction, not anything that changes what you owe or get refunded. It's purely informational. The government requires this reporting to track healthcare costs at a macro level. Your employer isn't trying to deduct anything from your pay that you didn't get - this is just a quirk of how some accounting systems handle the reporting requirement.
Is there any way to tell from the W2 if they actually DID deduct something from your paycheck though? Like could they hide deductions this way?
You can definitely verify if anything was deducted from your paycheck by looking at your pay stubs. Any healthcare premium deductions would appear as separate line items there, usually labeled something like "Health Insurance" or "Medical Premium." The W2 itself would show lower wages in Box 1 if money had been deducted pre-tax for health insurance. Also, if you had money taken out for insurance, there would typically be a code for that contribution elsewhere on the W2, not just the Code DD amount.
Wait I'm confused. If DD is just reporting what the employer paid, why would it be the same dollar amount for two different employees making different wages? Wouldn't the employer contribution be a percentage of salary or something? Something still seems off.
Great question! Employer health plan costs are typically not based on a percentage of salary - that's more common with retirement plans. For health insurance, employers often pay a fixed dollar amount per employee or per plan type (like individual vs. family coverage). Many companies also use what's called a "composite rate" for W2 reporting, where they take the total cost of their health plan and divide it equally among all employees, regardless of individual enrollment status or wages. That's why the OP and their cousin could have the same amount listed despite different incomes. The employer is essentially reporting the "per employee" cost of offering the health plan, not what was actually spent on each specific person.
Diego Flores
One important thing no one has mentioned yet is that you should check if the statute of limitations has expired for that 2016 tax year. Generally, the IRS has 3 years from the date you filed to assess additional tax, so if you filed on time in April 2017, the assessment period would have ended in April 2020. However, there are exceptions - if they can show substantial underreporting (over 25% of your income), the limit extends to 6 years. And there's no limit if they can prove fraud, but that doesn't sound like your situation. When exactly did you receive this notice? If it was after April 2020 and you don't fall into one of the exception categories, you might have a solid case based on the statute of limitations alone.
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LunarLegend
ā¢That's an excellent point I hadn't considered! I received the notice in January 2023, so well past the 3-year mark. I definitely didn't underreport by 25% (my income was all W-2 and reported correctly), and there's certainly no fraud involved. Is there a specific way I need to raise the statute of limitations issue in my appeal? And do I need to provide any specific evidence to support this argument?
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Diego Flores
ā¢If you received the notice in January 2023 for tax year 2016, and you filed on time in 2017, then you absolutely should raise the statute of limitations issue in your appeal. This could potentially resolve the entire 2016 dispute in your favor. In your appeal, you should specifically state: "I am disputing this assessment on the grounds that it violates the statute of limitations under IRC Section 6501(a), which provides a three-year limitation period for assessment of additional tax." Include a copy of your 2016 tax return or transcript showing when it was filed, and request that the assessment be abated in full due to the expiration of the assessment statute. If for some reason the IRS claims one of the exceptions applies, they have the burden of proof to demonstrate that. But based on what you've described (W-2 income, standard deduction), it's unlikely they can justify a six-year statute of limitations.
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Anastasia Kozlov
I just want to add that if you decide to handle this yourself, document EVERYTHING. Every call, letter, and interaction with the IRS should be recorded with date, time, the name of the person you spoke with, and what was discussed. If you call the IRS, always ask for a reference number for the call. This has saved me multiple times when the IRS later tried to claim they had no record of previous conversations. Also, send everything via certified mail with return receipt requested. The IRS is notorious for "losing" documents, and having proof of delivery has been crucial in my past dealings with them.
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Sean Flanagan
ā¢This is such important advice! I learned this the hard way. I had an issue similar to OP's and the IRS claimed they never received my response to their initial notice, even though I mailed it. I didn't have proof of mailing, so I was stuck starting the whole process over again and lost my first-level appeal opportunity. Now I use certified mail for everything and scan copies of all documents before sending them. I also take screenshots of any online submissions or confirmations.
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