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Ask the community...

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Ava Martinez

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Don't forget about the Form W-9! Requiring a completed W-9 adds an extra layer of verification. If someone provides false information on a W-9, they're committing perjury under federal law, which creates a strong disincentive for scammers.

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Miguel Ortiz

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That's great for US-based businesses, but international businesses won't have W-9s. They might have W-8BEN or W-8BEN-E forms instead. Just something to consider if OP is dealing with international verification too.

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One approach that's worked well for our platform is implementing a tiered verification system. For lower-risk transactions (under $500), we rely on document verification plus state business registry checks. For higher amounts, we add banking verification and sometimes require a video call with the business owner. We use a combination of automated document analysis (similar to what others mentioned with AI tools) and manual spot-checks. The key is having clear escalation procedures - if anything looks suspicious during automated screening, it gets flagged for human review. Also worth considering: many fraudsters will abandon applications if the verification process seems thorough, even if they could potentially pass each individual check. Sometimes the perception of rigorous verification is as valuable as the actual verification itself. For the volume you're dealing with, I'd recommend starting with document + state registry verification, then adding layers based on transaction risk levels rather than trying to verify everything to the same standard.

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Adrian Connor

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This tiered verification approach makes a lot of sense! I'm curious about your video call process - how do you handle that at scale? Do you have dedicated staff for verification calls, or do you use a third-party service? Also, what specific things do you look for during those calls to confirm legitimacy? I imagine it would be hard for fraudsters to fake a convincing business owner persona in real-time.

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One thing nobody's mentioned - you might want to get a professional appraisal retroactive to the date of death. This establishes the stepped-up basis and gives you solid documentation if the IRS ever questions the values. They usually cost around $400-500 but can save thousands in potential taxes or penalties.

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Is a retroactive appraisal actually valid? Wouldn't the IRS be suspicious of an appraisal done after the fact?

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I'm so sorry for your loss, and I completely understand feeling overwhelmed - handling a deceased person's taxes is incredibly stressful, especially when you're doing it as a volunteer. Since you found last year's depreciation schedule, that's actually your golden ticket! Look for these key numbers on that document: the original cost basis (what she paid in 1989), accumulated depreciation through last year, and the annual depreciation amount. These should all be listed on Schedule E or Form 4562 from her prior return. For the missing pieces like land value, you can often use a rule of thumb that land typically represents 20-30% of the total purchase price for residential properties, though this varies by location. The county assessor's office can also provide the land-to-improvement ratio they use for tax purposes. One important thing - since this is a final return for someone who passed away, you'll need to calculate depreciation only up to the date of death, not for the full year. After death, the property gets a stepped-up basis to fair market value, which eliminates future depreciation but may trigger depreciation recapture that needs to be reported on the final return. Don't hesitate to call the IRS taxpayer assistance line if you get stuck - they're usually helpful with estate-related questions, though you may need patience with hold times. You're doing a wonderful thing helping with her final affairs.

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TommyKapitz

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This is really helpful guidance! I'm new to this community but dealing with something similar after my grandmother passed. Quick question - when you mention the stepped-up basis eliminating future depreciation, does that mean if the property continues as a rental under the new owner (her son), he would start depreciating from the new fair market value at death rather than continuing with the old depreciation schedule?

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Ravi Sharma

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FYI - sometimes "SR" can mean "Supplemental Rate" too. When I worked at my last job, I had regular medical coverage plus a supplemental critical illness policy, and it showed up exactly like this. "Medical EE" was the base plan and "SR" was the add-on. Worth checking if you have multiple types of coverage.

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Freya Larsen

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I think it varies by company too. At my previous job, "SR" meant "Self + Room/Boarder" because I had a domestic partner on my insurance who wasn't legally a spouse. So many different systems all using the same abbreviations for different things!

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Jamal Carter

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This thread has been super helpful! I work in benefits administration and can confirm that payroll codes are unfortunately not standardized across companies. "Medical EE - SR" could mean several different things depending on your employer's system: - Employee - Standard Rate (most common) - Employee - Senior Rate (age-based pricing) - Employee - Spouse Rate (family coverage) - Employee - Supplemental Rate (additional coverage) The best approach is definitely to check with your HR department first, as they'll have the specific definitions for your company's codes. If you can't get clear answers there, your insurance card usually has a member services number that can help explain what coverage you're actually paying for. One tip: if you're budgeting, remember that most medical insurance premiums are deducted pre-tax, which reduces your taxable income. So while you see the deduction on your gross pay, it's actually saving you money on taxes compared to paying the same amount out-of-pocket after taxes.

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Thanks for the professional insight! That's really helpful to know there's no standard across companies. I'm curious - when you say "pre-tax," does that mean I should expect to see a smaller tax withholding on my check compared to if I didn't have this deduction? I've been wondering if the medical deductions are actually saving me money or just moving it around differently.

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This is such a frustrating situation, and I really feel for you! I've seen this happen more often lately - some clients seem to think they can just redact their tax ID and avoid their obligations. One thing that might help is sending your client a formal written request (email is fine) explaining that providing their EIN/SSN on the 1099 is a legal requirement under IRS regulations, not a courtesy. Sometimes putting it in writing makes them realize this isn't negotiable. You could mention that failure to provide complete tax information can result in penalties for them. If they still refuse, definitely go with Form 4852 as others have suggested. Make sure to keep documentation of all your attempts to get the proper information - screenshots of emails, notes from phone calls, etc. The IRS wants to see you made a good faith effort to obtain the correct information. Also consider whether this client is worth the headache for future work. Anyone who creates tax compliance issues for their contractors is probably going to cause other problems down the line. You deserve to work with people who handle their business responsibilities properly.

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CyberSiren

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This is really solid advice, especially about documenting everything! I'm dealing with a similar situation right now where a client is being evasive about providing their EIN. I hadn't thought about sending a formal written request explaining the legal requirements - that's a great approach that might make them take it more seriously. The point about keeping screenshots and call notes is crucial too. I've been pretty informal about tracking my communications, but if I end up having to file Form 4852, having that paper trail will definitely help show I did my due diligence. Thanks for sharing this perspective!

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Lilah Brooks

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I'm actually dealing with something very similar right now with a client who's being super sketchy about providing their EIN. It's so frustrating because you're just trying to follow the law and file your taxes correctly! One approach I haven't seen mentioned yet is reaching out to your state's Department of Revenue or Business Registration office. If you have the company name and address, sometimes you can look up their business registration and get their EIN that way. Not all states make this information publicly available, but it's worth checking. Also, if this client has a business license or is registered as an LLC/corporation, that information might be searchable in public business databases. I've had some luck finding EINs this way when clients were being uncooperative. The Form 4852 route definitely seems like the safest backup plan though. Better to document everything properly than risk issues with the IRS later. And honestly, any client who creates this kind of tax headache probably isn't worth keeping for future projects.

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Hannah White

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I actually had this exact issue with a /ES futures spread last year. The trick is to reverse how you think about the short position. For Form 6781: 1. For the short position: Put the amount you RECEIVED when opening the position as the PROCEEDS, and the amount you PAID to close it as the COST. 2. For the long position: Put the amount you PAID when opening as the COST, and the amount you RECEIVED when closing as the PROCEEDS. This way both will calculate correctly - the long showing a gain and the short showing a loss.

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Michael Green

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This is super helpful! Quick question though - for the portion that was marked-to-market at year end but not actually closed, do you still report it this way? And then do you have a second entry for when you actually closed the position the following year?

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Yes, for positions marked-to-market at year end but not actually closed, you need two separate entries. First entry: treat it as if you closed on Dec 31 at fair market value - for the short position, use the Dec 31 value as your "cost" and the original amount received as "proceeds." Second entry: for the actual closing in the following year, your new "cost basis" becomes that Dec 31 fair market value, and your "proceeds" are what you actually received when closing. So if you held a short put past year end, you'd have one Form 6781 entry showing the deemed close on Dec 31, and then when you file next year's taxes, another entry showing the actual close using the Dec 31 value as your starting point. This ensures each tax year captures the correct portion of the gain/loss.

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Zoe Dimitriou

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I ran into this exact same issue with SPX spreads last year and it was incredibly frustrating until I figured out the correct approach. The key insight that finally made it click for me was understanding that for short positions on Form 6781, you're essentially reporting a "reverse transaction" - what you received becomes proceeds, what you paid becomes cost. For your specific situation with the SPX put spread: - Short 4950 put: Proceeds = amount you received when opening the short position, Cost = amount you paid to close it (resulting in your $320 loss) - Long 4850 put: Cost = amount you paid when opening, Proceeds = amount you received when closing (resulting in your $215 gain) The mark-to-market rule is crucial here. Since you held these past December 31st, you need to report the "deemed sale" at fair market value on Dec 31 for this tax year's return. Then when you file next year, you'll report the actual closing transactions using the Dec 31 values as your new basis. Most tax software struggles with this, but the underlying tax treatment is straightforward once you understand the mechanics. The 60/40 split applies to each leg separately, so you'll get the favorable tax treatment on both the gain and loss portions.

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Kai Santiago

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This is exactly the clarification I needed! I was getting so confused trying to think of the short position in normal terms. Your explanation about it being a "reverse transaction" really makes it click - what I received when opening the short becomes the proceeds, and what I paid to close it becomes the cost basis. One follow-up question though - when you say I need to report the "deemed sale" at fair market value on Dec 31, how do I find that fair market value if my broker doesn't provide it in their year-end statements? The SPX options market was closed on Dec 31 since it was a weekend this past year. Do I use the last trading day value (Dec 29) or is there another method the IRS expects for determining that fair market value? Also, just to make sure I understand the timing correctly - this year's return shows the deemed sale using Dec 31 values, and next year's return will show the actual closing transactions using those same Dec 31 values as the starting basis, right?

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