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My tax guy told me that the mortgage interest follows the legal obligation to pay the debt. Since your mom is the only one on the mortgage, technically she's the only one legally obligated to pay it regardless of who actually makes the payments. He wouldn't let me claim interest on my son's mortgage even though I paid it all because I wasn't on the loan documents.
Your tax guy is generally right, but there's an important exception that applies to the original poster's situation. When someone has an ownership interest in the property (name on the deed) AND makes the payments from their account, they can claim the deduction even without being on the loan. The key is having both ownership interest and making the payments. The IRS has addressed this in several rulings. If you only made payments but had no ownership interest, then your tax person was correct in your specific case.
I went through something very similar last year! I was paying my sister's mortgage after she lost her job, but only her name was on the loan. The difference in your case is that you actually have ownership interest since your name is on the deed - that's huge for your tax situation. From my research and conversations with the IRS, having your name on the deed gives you the legal standing to claim the mortgage interest deduction even though you're not on the loan. The IRS cares about two things: (1) you have a legal or beneficial ownership interest in the property, and (2) you actually paid the interest. You clearly meet both criteria. Since you paid 100% of the interest and have ownership interest, you should be able to deduct the full amount. The 50/50 deed ownership doesn't limit your deduction - what matters is that you paid it and you have some ownership stake. Just make sure to attach a statement to your return explaining the situation, including your mother's name and SSN, and that you paid the interest reported on the 1098 that was issued to her. Keep all those bank statements showing the payments came from your account. For $266, it's definitely worth claiming if you're already itemizing anyway!
This is really helpful context! I'm curious about the statement you mentioned attaching to the return - is there a specific IRS form for this situation, or is it just a written explanation? I want to make sure I format it correctly so there's no confusion when they process my return. Also, did you end up having any follow-up questions from the IRS after filing, or did they accept it without any issues? I'm trying to gauge how common it is for them to ask for additional documentation in these cases.
This is exactly why I always maintain my own basis tracking spreadsheet for each LP investment. I've been burned before by relying on the GP's calculations. For your situation, here's what I'd recommend: Start with your original $65K investment, then add any income allocated to you from prior K-1s (check Box 1 on your 2023 K-1), subtract any prior distributions, and add your share of partnership debt. The debt piece is crucial - if the partnership has non-recourse debt, you likely get basis from your proportionate share. With a $120K distribution, you'll need to determine if any portion exceeds your adjusted basis. The excess would be treated as capital gain. Given that this was a refinance in 2024, the partnership's debt likely increased, which could have boosted your basis and reduced the taxable portion. I'd strongly suggest requesting a detailed basis calculation from your GP. If they can't provide it, consider working with a tax professional who specializes in partnership taxation - this isn't something you want to get wrong.
This is really helpful advice about maintaining your own tracking spreadsheet. I'm completely new to LP investments and honestly had no idea I needed to track my own basis - I assumed the GP would handle all of that correctly on the K-1. Quick question: when you mention adding my share of partnership debt to basis, how do I actually figure out what my proportionate share is? Is that something that should be clearly stated in the partnership agreement, or do I need to calculate it based on my ownership percentage? And does it matter if it's the original mortgage versus the new refinanced debt? I'm realizing I may be in over my head here and definitely need to get a tax professional involved, but I want to understand the basics before I meet with them.
Great question! Your share of partnership debt for basis purposes is typically based on your ownership percentage, but it can get more complex depending on how the partnership agreement allocates liabilities. For non-recourse debt (most real estate partnerships), limited partners usually get basis equal to their ownership percentage of the total debt. So if you own 5% of the partnership and there's $2M in non-recourse debt, you'd get $100K in basis from debt. The type of debt (original vs. refinanced) doesn't matter for basis - what matters is the total amount outstanding. When they refinanced, if the new loan amount was higher than the old one, your basis would increase proportionally. Check your partnership agreement for any special allocations or look for Box 20 on your K-1 which sometimes shows debt information. But honestly, many K-1s don't provide enough detail, which is why requesting that basis calculation from the GP is so important. You're smart to get a professional involved - partnership taxation is genuinely complex and the stakes are high if you get it wrong!
I've been through this exact scenario with two different LP investments over the past few years. The confusion around refinance distributions is completely understandable because the tax treatment isn't intuitive. Here's what I learned: The refinancing itself doesn't create a taxable event, but when those proceeds get distributed to partners, the tax treatment depends entirely on your adjusted basis in the partnership. Think of your basis as your "tax-free withdrawal limit" - distributions up to that amount are generally not taxable, but anything above it becomes taxable as capital gain. Your basis starts with your original $65K investment, but it gets adjusted over time. It increases with your share of partnership income and your proportionate share of partnership debt, and decreases with distributions and your share of losses (including depreciation). The tricky part is that most GPs don't provide adequate basis tracking. I'd recommend immediately requesting a detailed basis calculation from your GP showing your beginning basis, all adjustments for 2023-2024, and your ending basis after the $120K distribution. Don't just rely on the capital account shown in Box 9A of your K-1 - that's often different from your tax basis. If your GP can't provide this calculation, that's a red flag about their tax compliance practices, and you'll definitely need a tax professional who specializes in partnership taxation to help reconstruct your basis from prior years' K-1s and partnership documents.
This is such a comprehensive breakdown, thank you! I'm starting to realize that my assumption about refinance proceeds being automatically tax-free was oversimplified. The basis calculation approach makes much more sense now. One follow-up question: if I do end up having distributions that exceed my basis and are taxable as capital gains, would that be short-term or long-term capital gains treatment? Since I only invested in 2023 and received this distribution in 2024, it seems like it might be short-term, but I'm not sure if partnership distributions follow the same holding period rules as regular asset sales. Also, I'm definitely going to request that detailed basis calculation from the GP as you and others have suggested. If they push back or can't provide it, that will tell me a lot about whether I want to continue investing with this sponsor in the future.
16 Stupid question maybe but do I need to include the payment processor fees when determining if I've hit the $600 threshold for issuing a 1099? Like if I paid someone $590 but with fees it was $608 total cost to me, do I need to issue a 1099?
This is really helpful information! As someone who's been struggling with similar payment processor fee questions, I appreciate everyone sharing their experiences. Just to clarify my understanding - so if I pay a contractor $1,000 through Stripe and Stripe takes a $30 fee, I would: 1. Issue a 1099-NEC for $1,000 (the full amount I intended to pay) 2. On my Schedule C, deduct $1,000 as contractor expense 3. Separately deduct the $30 Stripe fee as a business expense Is that correct? And would this same logic apply to other payment methods like Venmo Business or Zelle?
This is actually really common with TT and their banking partner SBTPG. They hold onto refunds for weird reasons sometimes. Best thing to do: 1. Call SBTPG directly (not TT customer service) 2. Check your IRS transcript 3. Make sure your bank info is correct There's also a TT forum specifically for these issues that might have more specific advice.
I had the exact same thing happen to me last year - filed early February, got accepted, then suddenly status switched to pending with zero explanation from TurboTax. Turns out the IRS was doing additional processing on my EITC claim (even though everything was correct). The whole thing took about 4 weeks to resolve, but I eventually got my full refund plus interest for the delay. The most frustrating part is that TurboTax customer service acts like they have no visibility into what's actually happening once your return hits the IRS systems. I ended up having to check my IRS account transcript daily to see any updates. Don't panic though - a status change doesn't mean anything is wrong with your return, it just means the IRS needs more time to process it. The advance refund feature definitely makes it more confusing because you can't track it the normal way.
Zainab Ismail
The TurboTax advance works differently than the actual IRS refund process. Unlike H&R Block which requires IRS acceptance first, TurboTax makes their decision based on their own risk assessment immediately after you submit. For amended returns, they're more cautious since those have higher scrutiny rates from the IRS. Check your TurboTax messages section - that's where approval notifications appear first.
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Santiago Martinez
Just to add to what others have said - I had an amended return situation last year and TurboTax did approve me for the advance, but it took about 48 hours instead of the usual 24. They were more conservative with the amount too (only advanced about 40% of my expected refund). The key thing is that their decision is completely independent of IRS processing. Even if your return gets delayed or questioned by the IRS later, you still keep the advance money. Make sure to check both your TurboTax account dashboard AND your email (including spam) for the decision notification!
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Andre Dupont
ā¢This is really helpful info! I'm in a similar boat with an amended return and desperately need that advance money. Did you have to provide any additional documentation when you applied with the amended return, or was the process exactly the same? Also wondering if the 48-hour timeline you mentioned is pretty standard for amended returns or if some people wait even longer?
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