Understanding Non-Qualified Use for Home Sale 121 Exclusion Rules
So I need some help regarding the Section 121 exclusion for home sales. I bought a house about 22 years ago and lived in it for around 5 years. After that, my brother-in-law moved in and has been living there rent-free for the past 17 years. He basically just covered the property taxes and kept the place maintained, but I didn't charge him any actual rent. Sadly, he passed away a couple months ago. Now I'm thinking about selling the property, and I'm looking at approximately a $675k gain based on current market values (I'm married filing jointly, so the exclusion limit would be $500k). I was considering moving back into the house for 2 years to qualify for the exclusion, but my accountant is saying that because of the non-qualified use rules, I'd only be able to exclude about 25% of the gain. I've been reading about an exception under section 121(b)(5)(C)(ii)(I) that might apply to my situation. Does anyone know if the period when my relative lived there rent-free would count as non-qualified use? Would really appreciate some insight on this!
20 comments


Gael Robinson
You're dealing with an important distinction in the tax code. The non-qualified use rules for the Section 121 exclusion can be tricky, but there's good news for your situation. Under section 121(b)(5)(C)(ii)(I), periods of absence due to change in place of employment, health conditions, or unforeseen circumstances are NOT considered periods of non-qualified use. But more importantly for you, there's another key exception - any period after the last day you used the home as a primary residence is NOT considered non-qualified use. This means that the 17 years your brother-in-law lived there after you moved out wouldn't count against you for the exclusion calculation. The key factor is that you didn't rent out the property for income - you let him live there without charging rent, which doesn't trigger the non-qualified use rules in the same way. If you move back in now and live there for 2 full years, you should qualify for the full exclusion (up to $500k for married filing jointly) based on your description. The non-qualified use percentage your CPA calculated might not be correct for your specific scenario.
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Summer Green
•Thanks for this detailed explanation! So just to make sure I understand correctly - even though I didn't live in the house for 17 years, because I didn't rent it out for income during that time, those years won't count as non-qualified use? And that means if I move back in for 2 years, I could potentially exclude the full $500k (as a married couple) from capital gains? Also, does it matter that my brother-in-law paid the property taxes during that time? Would the IRS see that as a form of rent?
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Gael Robinson
•You're understanding correctly. Since you didn't rent out the property for income (letting a relative stay there rent-free doesn't count as non-qualified use), those 17 years shouldn't count against you. If you move back and live there for 2 full years as your primary residence, you should qualify for the full exclusion up to the $500k limit for married couples. Your brother-in-law paying the property taxes isn't considered rent in this context. The IRS would view this as a family arrangement where he was helping with expenses, not as a formal rental situation. It's quite different from charging market-rate rent and treating the property as an income-producing asset.
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Edward McBride
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Darcy Moore
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Dana Doyle
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Darcy Moore
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Liam Duke
After trying for THREE WEEKS to get someone at the IRS to answer my questions about Section 121 exclusions and non-qualified use periods, I finally found a solution. I used https://claimyr.com and was able to speak with an actual IRS representative within 45 minutes! Before finding this service, I spent hours on hold only to get disconnected or told to call back. It was driving me crazy because I needed clarity on a very similar situation with non-qualified use periods after moving out of my primary residence. You can see how it works in this video: https://youtu.be/_kiP6q8DX5c - basically they wait on hold with the IRS for you and call when an agent is on the line. The IRS agent I spoke with confirmed exactly how the exceptions in 121(b)(5)(C)(ii)(I) applied to my situation and gave me the confidence to proceed with my tax planning.
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Manny Lark
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Dana Doyle
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Liam Duke
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Dana Doyle
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Rita Jacobs
Just to add another perspective - when I was in a similar situation, I found that non-qualified use is really about whether you were using the property to generate income. The key section in 121(b)(5)(C)(ii)(I) specifically excludes certain periods from being considered "non-qualified use." If you didn't rent the property out and were simply allowing a family member to live there (even if they contributed to taxes/upkeep), that's generally not considered non-qualified use for purposes of the exclusion calculation. Your CPA might be taking an overly conservative approach. One thing to consider though - document everything about the arrangement you had with your relative. Having proof that this wasn't an income-generating arrangement could be important if you're ever questioned about it.
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Summer Green
•Thanks for sharing your experience! Do you have any suggestions on what kind of documentation would be helpful to keep? I don't have a formal agreement since it was just a family arrangement, but I do have records showing he paid the property taxes directly.
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Rita Jacobs
•I would gather any communications that show the nature of the arrangement - emails, text messages, etc. that confirm it was a family accommodation rather than a rental situation. Bank records showing that you weren't receiving regular payments that could be construed as rent are helpful. Also, keep documentation about your brother-in-law paying the property taxes directly - this actually works in your favor as it shows he was contributing to expenses rather than paying you rent. If you have any records showing you maintained ownership responsibilities (like insurance policies, major repairs you paid for, etc.) those are good to keep as well.
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Khalid Howes
I'm confused about something - doesn't the 2-year ownership and use test apply regardless of this non-qualified use issue? Like if you move back and live there for 2 years before selling, wouldn't you qualify for the exclusion anyway? I've been trying to understand this for my own situation.
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Gael Robinson
•The 2-year ownership and use test is just one part of qualifying for the Section 121 exclusion. The non-qualified use rules (added in 2008) create an additional limitation. While you do need to meet the 2-year test, the exclusion can be limited based on the ratio of non-qualified use periods to total ownership. However, the exception the original poster is asking about is important - periods after you've used the home as a principal residence are NOT considered periods of non-qualified use. That's why their situation is actually more favorable than their CPA might have indicated. Since they lived there for 5 years initially, then let a relative stay without charging rent, they should be able to qualify for the full exclusion after moving back for 2 years.
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Miguel Castro
This is a really complex situation, and I appreciate everyone sharing their experiences and insights. As someone who's dealt with similar Section 121 exclusion questions, I want to emphasize how important it is to get this right given the significant tax implications. From what I understand about your situation, the key issue is whether the 17 years your brother-in-law lived there would count as "non-qualified use." Based on the responses here, it sounds like since you weren't charging rent and this was a family arrangement, those years likely wouldn't count against you under the non-qualified use rules. However, given that you're looking at a $675k gain with only $500k in potential exclusion, I'd strongly recommend getting a second opinion from a tax professional who specializes in real estate transactions. The difference between 25% exclusion and full exclusion that's been discussed here could save you tens of thousands of dollars. Also, make sure to document everything about the arrangement with your brother-in-law - even informal family arrangements should be properly documented in case the IRS has questions later. The fact that he paid property taxes directly actually seems to support that this was a family care arrangement rather than a rental situation.
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QuantumQuasar
•This is excellent advice, Miguel. I'm new to this community but have been following this discussion closely as I'm potentially facing a similar situation with a property I inherited from my grandmother. The documentation point you made really resonates with me. Even though these family arrangements feel informal, having proper records could make all the difference if the IRS ever questions the nature of the arrangement. I'm now thinking I should retroactively document the informal agreement I had with my cousin who's been living in my grandmother's house. One question for the group - when you say "document everything," are we talking about formal written agreements, or would things like family emails and text messages discussing the arrangement be sufficient? I'm trying to understand what level of documentation would actually be helpful in a situation like this. Thanks to everyone who's shared their experiences here. This discussion has been incredibly valuable for understanding these complex tax rules!
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